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1. Simple instruments are needed because alcohol and other drug (AOD) abuse problems and infectious diseases can occur together with high prevalence; workers in each of these fields need to be knowledgeable about how to screen their clients for the disorders and problems of the other.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE 

2. Two of the 10 leading causes of death in the United States are substance abuse and infectious diseases.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

3. People with AOD abuse problems tend to have a low rate of STDs, HIV infection and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), TB, and hepatitis B and C.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

4. TB has been seen with increased frequency in chronic alcohol abusers and, recently, in injecting drug users as well.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

5. The increase in cases of TB since 1985 has been almost entirely due to the impact of HIV on both the transmissibility of and susceptibility to the disease.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

6. Patients with AOD abuse problems are at lower risk for infectious diseases because their immune systems are stronger from dealing with the AOD toxins.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

7. A screening instrument enables a clinical diagnosis to be readily made.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

8. Use of the screening instrument should be accompanied by a careful explanation of the subject's rights to confidentiality, as well as any limits on confidentiality.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

9. Blackouts: A type of memory impairment that occurs when a person is conscious but cannot remember the blackout period.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

10. CAGE questionnaire: A brief alcoholism screening tool asking subjects about attempts to cut down on drinking, Annoyance over others' criticism of the subject's drinking, Guilt related to drinking, and use of an alcoholic drink as an eye opener.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

11. Coke bugs: Small insects that infest cocaine that are hard to see with the naked eye. These are related to the hallucinogenic effect of cocaine.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

12. Constricted pupils (pinpoint pupils): Pupils that are temporarily narrowed or closed. This is usually a sign of opiate abuse.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

13. Crack: Cocaine that has been chemically modified so that it cracks open when heated to reveal a white powder that is inhaled; also called "rock" cocaine.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

14. DTs: Delirium tremens; a state of confusion accompanied by trembling and vivid hallucinations.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

15. Ecstasy: Slang term for methylenedioxymethampheta-mine (MDMA), known as a party drug it does not appear to be harmful if taken in one small dose per evening out.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

16. Hallucinogens: A broad group of drugs that cause distortions of sensory perception.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

17. Ice: Slang term for methamphetamine that is injected into the body refrigerated.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

18. Opiates: A type of depressant drug that diminishes pain and central nervous system activity.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

19. Paranoia: A type of delusion, or a false idea, that is unchanged by reasoned argument or proof to the contrary, often occurs during episodes of high-dose chronic stimulant use and may occur during withdrawal from sedative-hypnotics such as alcohol.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

20. Self-help groups: Self-help groups are the same as therapy groups except that they are not led by professional therapists.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

21. Tremors: An involuntary and rhythmic movement in the muscles of parts of the body, most often the hands, feet, jaw, tongue, or head. Tremors may be caused by stimulants such as amphetamines and caffeine, as well as by withdrawal from depressants.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

22. Uppers: Slang term used to describe drugs that have a stimulating effect on the central nervous system. Examples include cocaine, caffeine, and amphetamines.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

23. In most individuals who have both AOD problems and infectious diseases, symptoms of infectious diseases are apparent most of the time.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

24. The infectious-disease screening instrument is designed to be quickly administered in less then 5 minutes with a client in a setting in which they cannot be easily overheard.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

25. The Three R's of STDs are: Risk, Recognition, and Response.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

26. Chlamydia: A type of sexually transmitted infection; frequently asymptomatic in women, it can cause infertility, pelvic inflammatory disease, and complications during pregnancy.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

27. Positive skin test (Tine test, PPD test): A test for TB in which an injection is made into the skin of the forearm; a positive result is marked by a hard, red swelling at the injection site within 3 days. A PPD test may be interpreted by a lay person so it is ideal for screening in the field.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

28. Sexual contact: Having sexual intercourse: rectal, or vaginal sex between any two people, regardless of their gender, but excluding oral since body fluids are not exchanged.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

29. Syphilis: An STD that can cause an ulcer or lesion on the genitals but only rarely spreads to other parts of the body. Today it generally does not cause major health problems even in advanced stages because of medical advances in the last twenty years.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

30. Tuberculosis (TB): A highly infectious disease that is spread through airborne droplets to people who have had close contact with an infected individual.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

31. Injecting drug users are at highest risk for HIV infection, whether or not needle-sharing is acknowledged. In addition, these individuals are at increased epidemiologic risk for other STDs and TB.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

32. Both the increased level of sexual activity associated with cocaine use and the presence of other STDs, such as syphilis, increase the risk of HIV infection.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

33. A number of well-controlled studies have demonstrated that persons who have had an STD within the past year are at risk for acquiring another STD. This supports the common-sense dictum that changing all aspects of sexual behavior, including increasing condom use, changing sex partner-selection practices, and reducing the number of sexual partners, is difficult.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

34. Although most STDs in women are asymptomatic, vaginal discharge can be indicative of gonorrhea, chlamydia, trichomoniasis, or other STDs. It can also, however, be a symptom of a yeast infection that is not an STD.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

35. Painful intercourse, or dyspareunia, especially abdominal pain associated with penetration or orgasm, may be a symptom of early pelvic inflammatory disease. This condition is an inflammation that may involve the fallopian tubes, uterus, and other pelvic structures and, it usually passes safely over time and so rarely requires treatment.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

36. Penile discharge is nearly always a symptom of an STD.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

37. Having multiple sexual partners is associated with an increased risk of STDs and HIV infection.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

38. The screening process (being diagnostic) is often used to identify individuals at high risk.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

39. It has been estimated that as many as 30 percent of patients admitted to general hospitals have some type of AOD abuse problem.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

40. Treatment exists for both AOD abuse and infectious diseases; they can each only be treated but not cured.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

41. The primary idea behind protecting confidentiality is to allow the client (rather than the program) to determine when and to whom information about his or her AOD abuse or infectious diseases will be disclosed. Two sets of laws apply in this area: Federal and State.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

42. Violating the federal statutes and regulations guaranteeing the strict confidentiality of information about all persons applying for or receiving services for AOD abuse prevention, screening, assessment, and treatment is punishable by a fine of up to $500 for a first offense or up to $5,000 for each subsequent offense.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

43. State laws govern the confidentiality of information about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), as well as other infectious diseases.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

44. Information that is protected by the Federal confidentiality regulations may be disclosed after the client has signed a proper consent form.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

45. The purpose of the disclosure, and how much and what kind of information will be disclosed, are closely related. All disclosures, and especially those made pursuant to a consent form, must be limited to information that is necessary to accomplish the need or purpose for the disclosure.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

46. The consent form must also contain a date, event, or condition on which it will expire if it is not revoked by the client before then. A consent must last "no longer than reasonably necessary to serve the purpose for which it is given".
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

47. The consent form does not need to contain a specific expiration date, but may instead specify an event or condition. For example, if an AOD client is being referred to an HIV testing site, the consent form should state that it will expire after he or she has "gone for testing," or on the date that the appointment for testing will be made.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

48. A minor (defined in most states as persons under age 18) must always sign a consent form for a program to release information, even to his or her parent(s), guardian, or other person legally responsible for the minor. The program must obtain the parent's signature in addition to the minor's signature only if the program is required by State law to obtain parental permission before providing treatment to minors.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

49. The minor's consent for disclosures must always be obtained; you cannot rely on the parent's signature alone.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

50. Any disclosure made with the written consent of the client must be accompanied by a written statement that the information disclosed is protected by Federal law and that the person receiving the information cannot make any further disclosure of such information unless permitted by the regulations.
     ?  TRUE  FALSE   

Thank you for your participation in this continuing education course. We are required to collect evaluation data on each course completed prior to the issuance of your certificate. Please complete the following and return with your post-test.

Please evaluate the course using this scale:

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?  1 2 3 4 The extent to which this course met the objectives.

?  1 2 3 4 The adequacy of the author's mastery of the subject.

?  1 2 3 4 Efficiency of course mechanics (traditional homestudy or online procedures).

?  1 2 3 4 The applicability or usability of the information for you.

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